Who is Jesus: Do the Creeds Tell Us the Truth About Him?
Anthony Buzzard
What
sense is there in clinging to a doctrine of the trinity which offends Jews and
Muslims and which Jesus would not have believed? mark 12:28-34 shows Jesus to
be in line with the cardinal tenet of Judaism: God is a single person, the
Father of Jesus. psa 110:1 says it clearly. The One God speaks in an oracle
about Adoni, positively not Adonai! God does not speak to God! He
speaks to the Lord Messiah (Adoni, "my Lord, the king,
Messiah"). Adoni refers some195 times to superiors other than
God. It is a word describing human beings and occasionally angels.
The old
arguments about echad being a compound unity ar fallacious. The word
means "one and not two or more. "One flesh" is still one
flesh. The idea of plurality is derived not from the word echad but from
the idea of two persons being on flesh. But there is nothing in the context of
the biblical statements about the "One God" that hints at plurality.
In fact, Adonai (or the sacred name) is referred to by singular pronouns
and accompanied by singular verbs multiple thousands of times. Singular
pronouns tell us that God is one person. Rabbi Paul was not a Trinitarian. He
believed in "one God, the Father and one Lord Jesus Messiah (1Co_1:1-4). The
Lord Messiah is not the Lord God. In Gal_3:20, Paul
said (according to the Amplified Bible) "God is [only] one person. There
is no occurrence of the word "God" in the whole Bible that can be
proved to mean "God in three persons." That is because the
Bible-writers had never heard of the Trinity and did not believe in it.
The old
argument about Elohim having a plural ending and thus pointing to a Trinity. .
.was apparently not heard of until the 12th Century. It has been constantly
rejected by scholars in both RC and Protestant camps. Yet it continues to be
promoted by Dave Hunt whom many trust as an expert. Dave Hunt tells the public
that non-trinitarians are "pseudo-Christian cultists." He says that
"aberrant groups reject the
Trinity. He also promotes the myth that the Trinity can be traced back through
the early church fathers to the NT. This is not possible since, as many
Patristic experts know, the earliest Fathers were unitarians in the sense that
they believed the Son was begotten in time, not in eternity. The
"Son" of these Fathers was definitely subordinated to the Father. He
was not co-equal and co-eternal with the Father.
A dying
God?
God only
has immortality (1Ti_6:16). How, If Jesus is God, can he have died? An immortal person
cannot die! That is a flat contradiction. Does it honor God to speak in
such contradictions? -- that Jesus as God (who is immortal) died? How can
Jesus, if he is God, not know the time of his second coming (Mar_13:32)? God is
omniscient. Jesus did not know everything. Therefore, Jesus cannot be God,
unless language has ceased to have any meaning. God cannot be tempted (Jas_1:13), but
Jesus was tempted. If he was not fully human, his temptation was a charade. Did
Jesus give up being god when he died? Did he give up being God when he did not
know when he would return? How can God give up being God? That would mean that
Jesus was not when he was on earth.
Trinitarians
[and Binitarians] argue that only God could be the savior. But if Jesus, as
God, could not die, how can he have saved us? Cannot God appoint a sinless man
to be savior (Act_17:31; Act_2:22) "A
man approved of God")?
All of
these complex questions are solved if Bible-readers observe some simple facts:
Thousands upon thousands of times in the Bible (someone has calculated over
11,000 times), God is described by personal pronouns in the singular (I,
me, you, he, him). These pronouns in all languages describe single persons,
not [two] or three persons. There are thus thousands of verses that tell us
that the "only true God" (Joh_17:3; Joh_5:44,
"the one alone is God") is one person, not [two] or three.
There is
no place in the OT or NT where the word "God" can be proved to mean
"God-in-three-persons." The word God therefore, in the Bible never
means the Trinitarian [or Binitarian] God. . ."The word "God" in
the NT means the Father, except (for certain) in two passages where 'God'
refers to Jesus in a secondary sense (Heb_1:8; Joh_20:28). If
Jesus is a much entitled to be called God as his Father, why these
extraordinary facts? The word "God" can be used of a man who reflects
and represents the true God (Psa_82:6; Exo_7:1).
Why did
all translations in English before the King James render Joh_1:1-3 :
"All things were made by It (not him)? How do you know that Jesus
was the eternal Son of God, when no verse of Scripture calls him that?
What if the word or wisdom was with God (Joh_1:1) and was
fully expressive of God, and this wisdom became embodied in the real human
being Jesus (Joh_1:14)? Jesus would then be a human being who is the perfect
embodiment and expression of the wisdom
and creative activity of God ("the word became flesh, "not" the
Son became flesh"). If so, Luke's statement would be exactly right.
"Because of the supernatural begetting of Jesus in the womb of Mary, Jesus
is entitled to be called the Son of God" (Luk_1:35). .
.There is not a hint in Matthew, Mark, Luke Acts, or Peter that Jesus
pre-existed his birth. There is also no proof in the OT. God did not speak
through a so-called pre-existing Son in OT times (Heb_1:1-2).
Eternal
Begetting?
Does the
term "eternally begotten" make sense? How can someone who has had no
beginning be begotten? He can't. The term becomes, therefore, an oxymoron, a
contradiction of terms. That which is eternal has no beginning or ending! There
are no verses in the OT or NT which speak of Jesus being begotten by the Father
in eternity, including Pro_8:22-31, which
speaks of wisdom personified, not the Son. All references to the begetting of
Jesus are either to his conception and birth (luk 1:35; matt 1:20; Acts 13:33
or to his resurrection (v. 34), his appointment to kingship (Psalm 2). Without
an "eternal begetting" of the Son there is no Trinitarian (or
binitarian) doctrine.
Adam
Clarke says, "The doctrine of the eternal sonship of Christ is, in my
opinion, antiscriptural and highly dangerous. I have not been able to find any
express declaration of it in the Scriptures.
J. O.
Buswell, former dean of the Graduate School, Covenant College, St. Louis, Mo.,
and writing as a Trinitarian said, "The notion that the Son was begotten
by the Father in eternity past, not as an event, but as an inexplicable
relationship, has been accepted and carried along in the Christian theology
since the fourth century. . .we have examined all the instances in which
'begotten' or 'born' or related words are applied to Christ, and we can say
with confidence that the bible has nothing whatsoever to say about
'begetting' as an eternal relationship between the Father and the Son."
Church
History
Writers
of the standard encyclopedias tell us this fact about church history:
"Trinitarianism as a theological movement began much earlier in history;
indeed, it antedated Trinitarianism by many decades. Christianity derived from
Judaism, and Judaism was strictly unitarian. The road which led from Jerusalem
to the Council of Nicea was scarcely a straight one. Fourth century
Trinitarianism did not reflect accurately early Christian teaching
regarding the nature of God; it was, to the contrary, a deviation from this
teaching (EA).
Tertullian.
. .was clearly not a Trinitarian. He wrote: "God has not always been the
Father. For he could not have been a Father previous to the Son. There
was a time when the Son did not exist" (Against Hermogenes).
Michael
Schamus in Dogma, vol.3, God and His Christ, p. 216, explains,
"The Christian writers of the second and third centuries considered the
Logos as the eternal reason of the Father [not the eternal Son], but as
having at first no distinct existence from eternity; he [Son of God] received
this only when the Father generated him from within His own being and sent him
to create the world and rule over the world. The act of generation then was not
considered as an eternal and necessary life-act, but as one which had a
beginning in time, which mean that the Son was not equal to the Father,
but subordinate to Him. Even Origen, who in the third century initiated the
concept of "eternal generation" of the Son was not an orthodox
Trinitarian. The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, Origen, p. 1009,
declares, "Origen's philosophical suppositions ensure that for him the Son
can be divine only in a lesser sense than the Father; the Son is theos
(god), but only the Father is autotheos (absolute God, God in Himself).
The Creed
of Israel, of Jesus, and of True Christianity
It seems
incredible that Jesus, who recited the great creed of Israel (Mar_12:28-34) and was
a Jew, could possibly have believed in a Trinity. . .Jesus confirms and
perpetuates the creed of Israel which described God as one person, the Father.
He then defined himself as the Lord Messiah of psa 110:1 to whom he One Lord
god spoke in an oracle about the future. . .This "my Lord" of David
is translated from a Hebrew form of the word "lord" (Adoni)
which is used 195 times to describe a man as distinct from God. God is Adonai
(long vowel) and the Messiah is Adoni short vowel, "my Lord,
the Messiah, the King").
No Jew
could have expected his Messiah to be God in the Trinitarian sense. Moses
predicted the arrival of the Messiah by saying that God would not speak to the
people directly, but through a person like him, who would be raised up in
Israel (Deu_18:15-18; Acts 13:33). To say that the Messiah is God
Himself contradicts this prophecy, which announces that this person is not
God but a human prophet! Peter and Stephen teach that it was fulfilled in
the human Messiah (Act_3:22; Act_7:37), who perfectly reflects the will and the words of his Father and
who is the "visible image" of god, but not God Himself.
Clearly,
the One god is the Father and in close association is the one Lord Messiah (Mat_16:16). [see
also 1Jn_2:22].
Finally,
as to the pre-existence of Christ, Paul Tillich remarks on Joh_8:58 (Before
Abraham was I am [he]): "This means that the universal logos, the
principle of divine manifestation, is present in Jesus" (A History of
Christian Thought, p.409). This does not mean that the Son of god
pre-existed but that God's plan did. As Harnack remarked, "The miraculous
genesis of Christ (Mat_1:18; Mat_1:20; Luk_1:35) in the virgin of the HS and the real pre-existence and the
pre-existence are of course, mutually exclusive (History of Dogma). Luke
and Matthew denied the Trinity when they described the coming-into-existence of
the Son of God by miracle.